Before they married in 2000, Nonoy and Daday signed a marriage settlement wherein they agreed that their property relations as husband and wife would be governed by the conjugal partnership of gains. While the marriage was subsisting, they acquired a parcel of land using conjugal funds. The Register of Deeds issued a transfer certificate of title over the said land in the name of “Nonoy, married to Daday” . 1âшphi1 Nonoy sold the parcel of land to Barby without Daday’s consent. Daday was not aware of the sale and did not sign the contract of sale. A year after Nonoy and Barby signed the contract of sale, Daday died. When the children of Nonoy and Daday learned about the sale to Barby, they questioned its validity since Daday had not consented to the sale. Nonoy’s position is that Daday’s consent was not required because the property was registered in his name. Is the sale to Barby valid? Explain briefly. (5 points)
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No, the sale to Barby is not valid. Under Article 116 of the Family Code, all property acquired during marriage is presumed conjugal, even if registered in the name of only one spouse. Furthermore, under Article 124,
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Quick check
Under Article 116 of the Family Code, what is the legal presumption regarding property acquired during marriage?
Article 116 presumes that all property acquired during marriage belongs to the conjugal partnership of gains.
What is the legal significance of registering land under the name 'Nonoy, married to Daday'?
The phrase 'married to' is merely descriptive of civil status and does not alter the conjugal nature of the land.
Under Article 124 of the Family Code, what is the legal status of a sale of conjugal land without the written consent of one spouse?
Article 124 explicitly provides that a disposition of conjugal property without the other spouse's written consent is void.
Does the subsequent death of the non-consenting spouse validate a prior unauthorized sale of conjugal property?
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Why was Nonoy's sale of the conjugal parcel of land to Barby legally void?
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Learn more about these topics
1. Conjugal Property Presumption
Under Article 116 of the Family Code, all property acquired during the marriage is presumed to belong to the conjugal partnership of gains, unless it is proved that it pertains exclusively to the husband or to the wife. Registration of a property in the name of one spouse with the description 'married to' the other spouse does not make the land exclusive property. The phrase 'married to' is merely descriptive of civil status. So long as the asset was acquired during marriage using conjugal funds, the statutory presumption of conjugality remains absolute and binding.
2. Spousal Consent Requirement
Under Article 124 of the Family Code, the administration and enjoyment of the conjugal partnership property belong jointly to both spouses. In the event that one spouse disposes of or encumbers any conjugal real property without the written consent of the other spouse or authority of the court, the transaction is null and void in its entirety. The sale cannot be validated by the subsequent death of the non-consenting spouse, nor does it operate as a valid conveyance of even the alienating spouse's ideal share during the subsistence of the partnership.
3. Void Contract Effect
Under Philippine civil law, a contract of sale over conjugal land executed by one spouse without the required written consent of the other spouse is void ab initio rather than merely voidable. Because the disposition is completely void for lack of legal authority, no title or ownership passes to the buyer, regardless of whether the buyer acted in good faith or paid valuable consideration. Consequently, the legal heirs of the non-consenting spouse retain full legal standing to question the validity of the unauthorized conveyance and recover the property.